[2023] Use Valid Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam - Actual Exam Question & Answer
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NEW QUESTION # 36
Which intrusion detection system component is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces?
- A. Administration modules
- B. Packet filters
- C. Sensors
- D. Analyzers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The intrusion detection system component that is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces is sensors. This is because sensors are components of an intrusion detection system that are deployed on various locations or points of the network or system, such as routers, switches, servers, etc., and that capture and collect data from the network traffic or system activities. Sensors then forward the collected data to another component of the intrusion detection system, such as analyzers, for further processing and analysis. The other options are not components of an intrusion detection system that are responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces, but rather different components or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as packet filters (A), analyzers (B), or administration modules C.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
- B. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- C. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- D. Lack of specificity m the principles
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of metrics for repotting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts?
- A. Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
- B. Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
- C. Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
- D. Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST feature that facilitates the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts is tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them. This is because tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts helps to measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of vulnerability management efforts, by providing quantifiable and objective data on the number, severity, impact, status, and resolution time of vulnerabilities. Tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts also helps to identify and communicate any gaps or issues in vulnerability management efforts to senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not features that facilitate the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts, but rather different aspects or factors that affect vulnerability management efforts, such as reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results (A), benchmarking with industry peers (B), or monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments (D).
NEW QUESTION # 39
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Risk-based shakeout
- B. Hands-on testing
- C. Evaluation of implementation details
- D. Inventory and discovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is the SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media?
- A. Incremental backup
- B. Monthly backup
- C. Differential Backup
- D. Full backup
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup makes the restoration process slower, as it requires restoring multiple backups in a specific order and sequence, starting from the last full backup and then applying each incremental backup until the desired point in time is reached. The other options are not methods of restoring data from backup media that are slower than an incremental backup, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as monthly backup (A), full backup (B), or differential backup C.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is the MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft?
- A. Compromise of transient data
- B. Physical damage to devices
- C. Cost of purchasing replacement devices
- D. Installation of unauthorized applications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft is the compromise of transient data. Transient data is data that is temporarily stored or processed on a mobile device, such as cached data, cookies, browsing history, passwords, or session tokens. Transient data can reveal sensitive information about the user or the organization and can be exploited by attackers to gain access to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 42
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?
- A. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
- B. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
- C. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.
- D. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.
NEW QUESTION # 43
An information security procedure indicates a requirement to sandbox emails. What does this requirement mean?
- A. Guarantee rapid email delivery through firewalls.
- B. Provide a backup of emails in the event of a disaster
- C. isolate the emails and test for malicious content
- D. Ensure the emails are encrypted and provide nonrepudiation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An information security procedure that indicates a requirement to sandbox emails means that the emails need to be isolated and tested for malicious content. This is because sandboxing is a technique that creates a virtual or isolated environment, where suspicious or untrusted emails can be executed or analyzed without affecting the rest of the system or network. Sandboxing helps to detect and prevent malware, phishing, or spam attacks that may be embedded in emails, and protect the users and the organization from potential harm. The other options are not what sandboxing emails means, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as encryption and nonrepudiation (A), backup and recovery (B), or firewall and delivery (D).
NEW QUESTION # 44
A healthcare organization recently acquired another firm that outsources its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. From a regulatory perspective, which of the following is MOST important for the healthcare organization to determine?
- A. Incident escalation procedures
- B. Physical location of the data
- C. Cybersecurity risk assessment methodology
- D. Encryption algorithms used to encrypt the data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
From a regulatory perspective, the MOST important thing for the healthcare organization to determine when outsourcing its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the incident escalation procedures. This is because incident escalation procedures define how security incidents involving patient information are reported, communicated, escalated, and resolved between the healthcare organization and the SaaS provider. This is essential for complying with regulatory requirements such as HIPAA, which mandate timely notification and response to breaches of protected health information. The other options are not as important as incident escalation procedures from a regulatory perspective, because they either relate to technical aspects that may not affect compliance (A, B), or operational aspects that may not affect patient information security (D).
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which process converts extracted information to a format understood by investigators?
- A. Filtering
- B. imaging
- C. Reporting
- D. Ingestion
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The process that converts extracted information to a format understood by investigators is reporting. This is because reporting is a technique that involves presenting and communicating the results and findings of an investigation in a clear, concise, and accurate manner, using appropriate formats, such as tables, charts, graphs, etc. Reporting helps to convey the meaning and significance of the extracted information to the investigators, as well as other stakeholders, such as management, auditors, regulators, etc. The other options are not processes that convert extracted information to a format understood by investigators, but rather different techniques that are related to information extraction or analysis, such as ingestion (B), imaging C, or filtering (D).
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?
- A. The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
- B. The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
- C. The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
- D. The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues in the vendor's security controls or processes.
The other options are not as indicative of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D), or relying on the vendor's self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is EASIEST for a malicious attacker to detect?
- A. Insecure storage of sensitive data
- B. Ability to tamper with mobile code
- C. Susceptibility to reverse engineering
- D. Use of insufficient cryptography
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The EASIEST thing for a malicious attacker to detect is the susceptibility to reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing the code or functionality of an application to understand its structure, logic, or design. Reverse engineering can be used by attackers to discover vulnerabilities, bypass security mechanisms, or modify the application's behavior. Mobile applications are often susceptible to reverse engineering because they are distributed in binary form and can be easily decompiled or disassembled.
NEW QUESTION # 48
In cloud computing, which type of hosting is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment?
- A. Private hosting
- B. Shared hosting
- C. Hybrid hosting
- D. Public hosting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In cloud computing, the type of hosting that is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment is private hosting. Private hosting is a type of cloud service model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and hosted either on-premise or off-premise by a third-party provider. Private hosting offers more control over the security, performance, customization, and compliance of the cloud environment than other types of hosting.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers?
- A. It is higher speed.
- B. It is more cost effective.
- C. It is more reliable
- D. It is more secure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers is that it is more cost effective. This is because a VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a client and a server over an existing public network, such as the Internet. A VPN reduces the cost of establishing and maintaining a secure communication channel, as it does not require any additional hardware, software, or infrastructure, unlike dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, which require dedicated lines, modems, routers, switches, etc. The other options are not the greatest advantage of using a VPN over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, because they either involve security (A), reliability (B), or speed C aspects that may not be significantly different or better than dedicated circuits and dial-in servers.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode?
- A. A user's behavior pattern can be predicted.
- B. An adversary can predict a user's login credentials.
- C. Authorization tokens could be exploited.
- D. Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to "always on" mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit?
- A. Digital Signature Standard
- B. Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement
- C. Elliptic Curve Cryptography
- D. Secret Key Cryptography
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit. ECC is based on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves, which are curves that have a special shape that makes them suitable for cryptography. ECC can achieve the same level of security as other public key algorithms with much smaller key sizes, which reduces storage and bandwidth requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?
- A. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
- B. Cybersecurity risk scenarios
- C. Industry-specific security regulator
- D. Cybersecurity operations management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following features of continuous auditing provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling?
- A. Voluminous dale can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns.
- B. Automated tools provide more reliability than an auditors personal judgment
- C. Reports can be generated more frequently for management.
- D. Continuous auditing tools are less complex for auditors to manage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature of continuous auditing that provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling is that voluminous data can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns. This is because continuous auditing is a technique that uses automated tools and processes to perform audit activities on a continuous or near-real-time basis, and to analyze large amounts of data from various sources and systems. Continuous auditing helps to provide a higher level of assurance than traditional sampling, by covering the entire population of transactions or events, rather than a subset or sample, and by identifying trends, anomalies, or exceptions that may indicate risks or issues. The other options are not features of continuous auditing that provide the best level of assurance over traditional sampling, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as reporting frequency (A), reliability (B), or complexity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following is an objective of public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Independently authenticating the validity of the sender's public key
- B. Creating the private-public key pair for secure communications
- C. Approving the algorithm to be used during data transmission
- D. Securely distributing secret keys to the communicating parties
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An objective of public key infrastructure (PKI) is to independently authenticate the validity of the sender's public key. PKI is a system that uses cryptographic keys to secure communications and transactions. PKI involves a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA) that issues digital certificates that link a public key with an identity. The recipient can use the CA's public key to verify the sender's certificate and public key.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
- B. The vulnerability program is formally approved
- C. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- D. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability.
Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following is an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks?
- A. Infiltration attack vector
- B. Exfiltration attack vector
- C. Adversarial threat event
- D. Kill chain modeling
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An example of an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks is an exfiltration attack vector. An exfiltration attack vector is a method or channel that an APT uses to transfer data from a compromised system or network to an external location. Examples of exfiltration attack vectors include email, FTP, DNS, HTTP, or covert channels.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness?
- A. Capability maturity model integration
- B. COBIT 5
- C. 60 270042009
- D. Balanced scorecard
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The document that contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness is Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI). This is because CMMI is a framework that defines five levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and provides best practices and guidelines for improving the quality and effectiveness of processes across different domains, such as software development, service delivery, or cybersecurity. The other options are not documents that contain the essential elements of effective processes and describe an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as Balanced Scorecard (B), ISO 27004:2009 C, or COBIT 5 (D).
NEW QUESTION # 58
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Reconnaissance
- B. Maintaining a presence
- C. Creating attack tools
- D. Exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 59
The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure is known as:
- A. confidentiality.
- B. access control.
- C. cryptograph
- D. media protect on.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure is known as confidentiality. This is because confidentiality is one of the three main objectives of information security, along with integrity and availability. Confidentiality ensures that information is accessible and readable only by those who are authorized and intended to do so, and prevents unauthorized or accidental exposure of information to unauthorized parties. The other options are not the protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as access control (A), cryptography (B), or media protection C.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following is a limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?
- A. Application-level vulnerabilities
- B. Limited evidence on intrusive activity
- C. Weak passwords for the administration console
- D. Lack of Interface with system tools
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS) is that they cannot detect application-level vulnerabilities. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic or system activity and alerts on any suspicious or malicious events.
However, an IDS cannot analyze the logic or functionality of applications and identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or broken authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 61
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