Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam Practice Questions prepared by ISACA Professionals
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NEW QUESTION # 25
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk prioritization.
- B. risk aggregation.
- C. risk elimination.
- D. risk quantification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 26
he MOST significant limitation of vulnerability scanning is the fact that modern scanners only detect:
- A. unknown vulnerabilities.
- B. zero-day vulnerabilities.
- C. known vulnerabilities.
- D. common vulnerabilities.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST significant limitation of vulnerability scanning is the fact that modern scanners only detect known vulnerabilities. This is because vulnerability scanners rely on databases or repositories of known vulnerabilities, such as CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures), to compare and identify the weaknesses or flaws in systems or applications. Vulnerability scanners cannot detect unknown vulnerabilities, such as zero-day vulnerabilities, that have not been reported or disclosed yet, and may be exploited by attackers before they are patched or fixed. The other options are not the most significant limitation of vulnerability scanning, because they either involve detecting common (A), unknown (B), or zero-day (D) vulnerabilities, which are not the capabilities or limitations of modern scanners.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is MOST important to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program?
- A. Processes are centralized and standardized.
- B. Processes are approved by the process owner.
- C. Processes are aligned with industry best practices.
- D. Processes are updated and documented annually.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program is whether the processes are aligned with industry best practices. Identity management is the process of managing the identities and access rights of users across an organization's systems and resources. Industry best practices provide guidelines and standards for how to implement identity management in a secure, efficient, and compliant manner.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following BEST characterizes security mechanisms for mobile devices?
- A. Inadequate for organizational use
- B. Configurable and reliable across device types
- C. Easy to control through mobile device management
- D. Comparatively weak relative to workstations
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST characteristic that describes security mechanisms for mobile devices is easy to control through mobile device management. This is because mobile device management is a technique that allows organizations to centrally manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc., that are used by their employees or customers. Mobile device management helps to enforce security policies, configure settings, install applications, monitor usage, wipe data, etc., on mobile devices remotely and efficiently. The other options are not characteristics that describe security mechanisms for mobile devices, but rather different aspects or factors that affect security mechanisms for mobile devices, such as weakness (B), inadequacy C, or reliability (D).
NEW QUESTION # 29
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, which function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data?
- A. Respond
- B. Recover
- C. Identify
- D. Detect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, the identify function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data. This is because the identify function helps organizations to develop an organizational understanding of their cybersecurity risk management posture, as well as the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect their business objectives. The other functions are not directly related to using organizational understanding, but rather focus on detecting (A), recovering C, or responding (D) to cybersecurity events.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
- B. The vulnerability program is formally approved
- C. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- D. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability.
Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit?
- A. Digital Signature Standard
- B. Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement
- C. Elliptic Curve Cryptography
- D. Secret Key Cryptography
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit. ECC is based on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves, which are curves that have a special shape that makes them suitable for cryptography. ECC can achieve the same level of security as other public key algorithms with much smaller key sizes, which reduces storage and bandwidth requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is the BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information?
- A. Use of logging digital signatures, and write protection
- B. Use of access controls, file permissions, and encryption
- C. Use of backups and business continuity planning
- D. Use of the awareness tracing programs and related end-user testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information is using access controls, file permissions, and encryption. This is because these techniques help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of digital information, by restricting who can access the information, what they can do with it, and how they can access it. The other options are not as effective as using access controls, file permissions, and encryption, because they either relate to protecting availability (B), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Differential backup
- B. Full backup
- C. Incremental backup
- D. Daily backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is a MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers?
- A. Significant investments and specialized security skills are not required.
- B. SECaaS providers are compliant with specific security requirements and new regulations.
- C. Available security services from providers are affordable to enterprises of all sizes.
- D. Enterprises can use the latest technologies to counter threats that are constantly evolving.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers is that significant investments and specialized security skills are not required. SECaaS is a type of cloud service model that provides security solutions and services to customers over the internet. SECaaS providers can offer various security functions such as antivirus, firewall, encryption, identity management, vulnerability scanning, and incident response. By using SECaaS providers, customers can save costs and resources on acquiring, maintaining, and updating security hardware and software. Customers can also leverage the expertise and experience of the SECaaS providers to address their security needs and challenges.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?
- A. full data backup is performed daily.
- B. Backups of information are regularly tested.
- C. The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
- D. Data backups are available onsite for recovery.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness?
- A. 60 270042009
- B. Balanced scorecard
- C. COBIT 5
- D. Capability maturity model integration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The document that contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness is Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI). This is because CMMI is a framework that defines five levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and provides best practices and guidelines for improving the quality and effectiveness of processes across different domains, such as software development, service delivery, or cybersecurity. The other options are not documents that contain the essential elements of effective processes and describe an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as Balanced Scorecard (B), ISO 27004:2009 C, or COBIT 5 (D).
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which process converts extracted information to a format understood by investigators?
- A. Ingestion
- B. imaging
- C. Filtering
- D. Reporting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The process that converts extracted information to a format understood by investigators is reporting. This is because reporting is a technique that involves presenting and communicating the results and findings of an investigation in a clear, concise, and accurate manner, using appropriate formats, such as tables, charts, graphs, etc. Reporting helps to convey the meaning and significance of the extracted information to the investigators, as well as other stakeholders, such as management, auditors, regulators, etc. The other options are not processes that convert extracted information to a format understood by investigators, but rather different techniques that are related to information extraction or analysis, such as ingestion (B), imaging C, or filtering (D).
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?
- A. Hacktivists
- B. Script kiddies
- C. Malware researchers
- D. Cybercriminals
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers?
- A. It is more secure
- B. It is more cost effective.
- C. It is higher speed.
- D. It is more reliable
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers is that it is more cost effective. This is because a VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a client and a server over an existing public network, such as the Internet. A VPN reduces the cost of establishing and maintaining a secure communication channel, as it does not require any additional hardware, software, or infrastructure, unlike dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, which require dedicated lines, modems, routers, switches, etc. The other options are not the greatest advantage of using a VPN over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, because they either involve security (A), reliability (B), or speed C aspects that may not be significantly different or better than dedicated circuits and dial-in servers.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in which of the following states?
- A. Public restricted, and confidential
- B. At rest, in transit and in use
- C. Operating system application and database levels
- D. Data sent, data received, and data deleted
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in all states: at rest, in transit and in use.
This is because DLP solutions are technologies or tools that help to prevent unauthorized or accidental disclosure, modification, or deletion of sensitive or confidential information by users or applications. DLP solutions help to protect information in all states, by applying different types of controls or mechanisms depending on the state of the information. For example, DLP solutions can protect information at rest by encrypting or masking the data stored on devices or media; protect information in transit by inspecting or filtering the data transmitted over networks or channels; and protect information in use by restricting or monitoring the access or usage of the data by users or applications. The other options are not states that strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in, but rather different levels (B), classifications C, or actions (D) that are related to information security.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following devices is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval?
- A. Printing devices
- B. Cloud storage devices
- C. Desktop workstation
- D. Mobile devices
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The device that is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval is mobile devices. This is because mobile devices are devices that are portable, wireless, and connected to the Internet or other networks, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc. Mobile devices are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, because they can be easily lost, stolen, or compromised by attackers who can access or extract the data stored or transmitted on the devices. Mobile devices can also be subject to activity monitoring and data retrieval by third-party applications or services that may collect or share the user's personal or sensitive information without their consent or knowledge. The other options are not devices that are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, but rather different types of devices that may have different levels of risk or protection from activity monitoring and data retrieval, such as cloud storage devices (B), desktop workstations C, or printing devices (D).
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following would provide the BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities when comprehensive classification is not feasible?
- A. Comprehensive cyber insurance procurement
- B. Business dependency assessment
- C. Business process re-engineering
- D. Single classification level allocation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities when comprehensive classification is not feasible is a business dependency assessment. This is because a business dependency assessment helps to identify the criticality and sensitivity of business processes and their supporting assets, based on their contribution to the organization's objectives and value proposition. This allows for prioritizing protection activities according to the level of risk and impact. The other options are not as effective as a business dependency assessment, because they either use a single classification level allocation (A), which does not account for different levels of risk and impact; require a significant amount of time and resources to perform a business process re-engineering (B); or rely on external parties to cover potential losses without reducing the likelihood or impact of incidents (D).
NEW QUESTION # 43
A healthcare organization recently acquired another firm that outsources its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. From a regulatory perspective, which of the following is MOST important for the healthcare organization to determine?
- A. Physical location of the data
- B. Cybersecurity risk assessment methodology
- C. Incident escalation procedures
- D. Encryption algorithms used to encrypt the data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
From a regulatory perspective, the MOST important thing for the healthcare organization to determine when outsourcing its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the incident escalation procedures. This is because incident escalation procedures define how security incidents involving patient information are reported, communicated, escalated, and resolved between the healthcare organization and the SaaS provider. This is essential for complying with regulatory requirements such as HIPAA, which mandate timely notification and response to breaches of protected health information. The other options are not as important as incident escalation procedures from a regulatory perspective, because they either relate to technical aspects that may not affect compliance (A, B), or operational aspects that may not affect patient information security (D).
NEW QUESTION # 44
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